Notes - Analysis II HT23, Mean value theorems


Flashcards

Can you state Rolle’s theorem (the one about turning points between two equal values)?


Let $f: [a, b] \to \mathbb R$ be a function. Suppose:

  1. $f$ is continuous on $[a, b]$.
  2. $f$ is differentiable on $(a, b)$.
  3. $f(a) = f(b)$.

Then $\exists \xi \in (a, b)$ such that $f’(\xi) = 0$.

What does Rolle’s theorem say informally?


If $f : [a, b] \to \mathbb R$ is nice and equal at the endpoints, it must turn around somewhere inbetween.

What two ingredients go into proving Rolle’s theorem?


  1. Boundedness theorem
  2. Fermat’s theorem on extrema

When proving Rolle’s theorem, the idea is to show that there either exists a local minimum or local maximum of $[a, b]$, which then has zero derivative due to Fermat’s theorem on extrema. What are the three cases?


  1. $\exists x _ 0 \in [a,b]$ such that $f(x _ 0) \ge f(a)$
  2. $\exists x _ 0 \in [a, b]$ such that $f(x _ 0) \le f(a)$
  3. Neither, in which case the function is constant

Can you state the mean value theorem/Lagrange’s theorem (about the derivative between two points of a function)?


Let $f : [a, b] \to \mathbb R$ be a function. Suppose:

  1. $f$ is continuous on $[a, b]$.
  2. $f$ is differentiable on $(a, b)$.

Then there exists $\xi \in (a, b)$ such that

\[f'(\xi) = \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a}\]

What does the mean value theorem/Lagrange’s theorem say informally?


If $f : [a, b] \to \mathbb R$ is nice, then there exists some point where $f$ is tangent to the secant between $f(a)$ and $f(b)$.

Can you state the generalised mean value theorem/Cauchy’s theorem?


Let $f, g : [a, b] \to \mathbb R$ be functions. Suppose:

  1. $f, g$ are continuous on $[a, b]$.
  2. $f, g$ are differentiable on $(a, b)$.

Then there exists $\xi \in (a, b)$ such that

\[f'(\xi)(g(b) - g(a)) = g'(\xi)(f(b) - f(a))\]

The generalised mean value theorem states that If $f, g : [a, b] \to \mathbb R$ are functions and

  1. $f, g$ are continuous on $[a, b]$.
  2. $f, g$ are differentiable on $(a, b)$.

Then there exists $\xi \in (a, b)$ such that

\[f'(\xi)(g(b) - g(a)) = g'(\xi)(f(b) - f(a))\]

How can this be written if $g(a) \ne g(b)$ and $g’(x)$ is not zero in $(a, b)$?


\[\frac{f'(\xi)}{g'(\xi)} = \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{g(b) - g(a)}\]

How is Rolle’s theorem a special case of the mean value theorem, which itself is a special case of the generalised mean value theorem?


  • Rolle’s theorem is the mean value theorem in the case where $f(a) = f(b)$.
  • The mean value theorem is the generalised mean value theorem in the case where $g(x) = x$.

When proving the normal mean value theorem, i.e.

Let $f : [a, b] \to \mathbb R$ be a function. Suppose:

  1. $f$ is continuous on $[a, b]$.
  2. $f$ is differentiable on $(a, b)$.

Then there exists $\xi \in (a, b)$ such that $f’(\xi) = \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a}$.

what function $F$ do you consider so that Rolle’s theorem applies?


\[F(x) = f(x) - f(a) - K(x - a)\]

where $K$ is chosen to be

\[K = \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a}\]

so that $F(a) = F(b) = 0$.

When proving the Cauchy/generalised mean value theorem, i.e.

Let $f, g : [a, b] \to \mathbb R$ be functions. Suppose:

  1. $f, g$ are continuous on $[a, b]$.
  2. $f, g$ are differentiable on $(a, b)$.

Then there exists $\xi \in (a, b)$ such that

\[f'(\xi)(g(b) - g(a)) = g'(\xi)(f(b) - f(a))\]

what function $F$ do you consider so that Rolle’s theorem applies?


\[F(x) = f(x) - f(a) - K(g(x) - g(a))\]

where $K$ is chosen to be

\[K = \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{g(b) - g(a)}\]

so that $F(a) = F(b) = 0$.

Proofs

Prove Rolle’s theorem:

Let $f: [a, b] \to \mathbb R$ be a function. Suppose:

  1. $f$ is continuous on $[a, b]$.
  2. $f$ is differentiable on $(a, b)$.
  3. $f(a) = f(b)$.

Then $\exists \xi \in (a, b)$ such that $f’(\xi) = 0$.


Todo.

Prove the mean value theorem/Lagrange’s theorem:

Let $f : [a, b] \to \mathbb R$ be a function. Suppose:

  1. $f$ is continuous on $[a, b]$.
  2. $f$ is differentiable on $(a, b)$.

Then there exists $\xi \in (a, b)$ such that $f’(\xi) = \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a}$.


Todo.

Prove the generalised mean value theorem/Cauchy’s theorem:

Let $f, g : [a, b] \to \mathbb R$ be functions. Suppose:

  1. $f, g$ are continuous on $[a, b]$.
  2. $f, g$ are differentiable on $(a, b)$.

Then there exists $\xi \in (a, b)$ such that

\[f'(\xi)(g(b) - g(a)) = g'(\xi)(f(b) - f(a))\]

and furthermore if $g(a) \ne g(b)$ and $g’(x)$ is not zero in $(a, b)$, then this is equivalent to

\[\frac{f'(\xi)}{g'(\xi)} = \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{g(b) - g(a)}\]

Todo.

Prove the relationship between derivatives and monotonicity:

Let $f : I \to \mathbb R$ be a differentiable function defined on an interval. Then

  • If $f’(x) \ge 0$ or $f(x) > 0$ for all $x \in I$ then $f$ is increasing or strictly increasing on $I$.
  • If $f’(x) \le 0$ or $f(x) < 0$ for all $x \in I$ then $f$ is decreasing or strictly decreasing on $I$.

Todo.




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