Analysis II HT23, Taylor’s theorem
Flashcards
@State Taylor’s theorem in full.
Suppose:
- $f : [a, b] \to \mathbb R$
- $f, f', \ldots, f^{(n)}$ exist and are continuous on $[a, b]$.
- $f^{(n+1)}$ exists on $(a, b)$.
- $n \ge 0$
Then $\exists \xi \in (a, b)$ such that
\[\begin{aligned} f(b) &= f(a) \\ &+ f'(a)(b - a) \\ &+ \frac{f''(a)}{2!} (b-a)^2 \\ &+ \cdots \\ &+ \frac {f^{(n)}\space(a)} {n!}(b-a)^n \\ &+ \frac {f^{(n+1)}\space(\xi)}{(n+1)!}(b-a)^{n+1} \end{aligned}\]Assuming all the conditions are met, what does the Taylor polynomial look like for $f(x _ 0 + h)$?
For some $\theta \in (0, 1)$
\[\begin{aligned} f(x _ 0 + h) &= f(x _ 0) \\ &+ f'(x _ 0)h \\ &+ \frac{f''(x _ 0)}{2!} h^2 \\ &+ \cdots \\ &+ \frac {f^{(n)}\space(x _ 0)} {n!}h^n \\ &+ \frac {f^{(n+1)}\space(x _ 0 + \theta h)}{(n+1)!}h^{n+1} \end{aligned}\]@Define what it means for a function $f$ to be analytic at a point $x _ 0$.
Taylor’s theorem states that:
Let $f : [a, b] \to \mathbb R$. Let $n \ge 0$ be such that
- $f, f', \ldots, f^{(n)}$ exist and are continuous on $[a, b]$.
- $f^{(n+1)}$ exists on $(a, b)$.
Then there exists $\xi \in (a, b)$ such that
\[\begin{aligned}
f(b) &= f(a) \\
&+ f'(a)(b - a) \\
&+ \frac{f''(a)}{2!} (b-a)^2 \\
&+ \cdots \\
&+ \frac {f^{(n)}\space(a)} {n!}(b-a)^n \\
&+ \frac {f^{(n+1)}\space(\xi)}{(n+1)!}(b-a)^{n+1}
\end{aligned}\]
What function do you consider for the proof, and what do you want to show?
Consider
\[r _ n(x) = f(x) - \sum _ {k=0}^n \frac{f^{(k)}(a)}{k!}(x-a)^k\](i.e. the remainder), and you want to show
\[\frac{r _ n(b)}{(b-a)^{n+1}\,} = \frac{r _ n^{(n+1)}(\xi)}{(n+1)!}\]Taylor’s theorem states that:
Let $f : [a, b] \to \mathbb R$. Let $n \ge 0$ be such that
- $f, f', \ldots, f^{(n)}$ exist and are continuous on $[a, b]$.
- $f^{(n+1)}$ exists on $(a, b)$.
Then there exists $\xi \in (a, b)$ such that
\[\begin{aligned}
f(b) &= f(a) \\
&+ f'(a)(b - a) \\
&+ \frac{f''(a)}{2!} (b-a)^2 \\
&+ \cdots \\
&+ \frac {f^{(n)}\space(a)} {n!}(b-a)^n \\
&+ \frac {f^{(n+1)}\space(\xi)}{(n+1)!}(b-a)^{n+1}
\end{aligned}\]
For the proof, you consider
\[r _ n(x) = f(x) - \sum _ {k=0}^n \frac{f^{(k)}(a)}{k!}(x-a)^k\]
(i.e. the remainder), and you want to show
\[\frac{r _ n(b)}{(b-a)^{n+1}\,} = \frac{r _ n^{(n+1)}(\xi)}{(n+1)!}\]
Can you justify this, given that $r _ n$ has a certain property about its $i$-th derivative?
Proofs
@Prove Taylor’s theorem:
Let $f : [a, b] \to \mathbb R$. Let $n \ge 0$ be such that
- $f, f', \ldots, f^{(n)}$ exist and are continuous on $[a, b]$.
- $f^{(n+1)}$ exists on $(a, b)$.
Then there exists $\xi \in (a, b)$ such that
\[\begin{aligned}
f(b) &= f(a) \\
&+ f'(a)(b - a) \\
&+ \frac{f''(a)}{2!} (b-a)^2 \\
&+ \cdots \\
&+ \frac {f^{(n)}\space(a)} {n!}(b-a)^n \\
&+ \frac {f^{(n+1)}\space(\xi)}{(n+1)!}(b-a)^{n+1}
\end{aligned}\]
Todo.