Linear Algebra II HT23, Gram-Schmidt process
Flashcards
The Gram-Schmidt process takes in a basis $[u _ 1, \ldots u _ n]$ and outputs an orthonormal basis $[w _ 1, \ldots, w _ n]$. What additional property does this orthonormal basis have?
for all $j \le n$.
How could you prove every finite dimensional inner product space has an orthonormal basis?
Use the Gram-Schmidt process.
Say you’ve been given a basis $[u _ 1, \ldots, u _ n]$ to construct an orthonormal basis from and have made it as far as $[w _ 1, \ldots, w _ {j-1}]$ where $\text{span}(u _ 1, \ldots, u _ {j-1}) = \text{span} (v _ 1, \ldots, v _ {j-1})$. What is the expression for $w _ j$ (the unnormalised basis vector), and then $v _ j$ (the normalised one)?
and
\[v_j = \frac{w_j}{||w_j||}\]What’s the main proof technique behind proving the validity of the Gram-Schmidt process, i.e.
Given $v _ 1, \ldots, v _ k$ lineraly independent vectors, then there exists $w _ 1, \ldots, w _ k$ such that:
- $w _ i$ are mutually orthogonal
- $\text{span}(w _ 1, \ldots, w _ i) = \text{span}(v _ 1, \ldots, v _ i)$
for each $i \le k$.
?
Given $v _ 1, \ldots, v _ k$ lineraly independent vectors, then there exists $w _ 1, \ldots, w _ k$ such that:
- $w _ i$ are mutually orthogonal
- $\text{span}(w _ 1, \ldots, w _ i) = \text{span}(v _ 1, \ldots, v _ i)$
for each $i \le k$.
Proof by induction.
When proving the validity of the Gram-Schmidt process, i.e. that
Given $v _ 1, \ldots, v _ k$ lineraly independent vectors, then there exists $w _ 1, \ldots, w _ k$ such that:
- $w _ i$ are mutually orthogonal
- $\text{span}(w _ 1, \ldots, w _ i) = \text{span}(v _ 1, \ldots, v _ i)$
for each $i \le k$.
you proceed by induction. At some stage in the proof, you have to show (assuming the inductive hypothesis) that
\[\text{span}(v_1, \ldots, v_{k-1}, v_k) = \text{span}(w_1, \ldots, w_{k-1}, w_k)\]
Can you justify this?
Given $v _ 1, \ldots, v _ k$ lineraly independent vectors, then there exists $w _ 1, \ldots, w _ k$ such that:
- $w _ i$ are mutually orthogonal
- $\text{span}(w _ 1, \ldots, w _ i) = \text{span}(v _ 1, \ldots, v _ i)$
for each $i \le k$.
Step one by the inductive hypothesis, and step two by the Steinitz exchange lemma.
Proofs
Prove (via the Gram-Schmidt process) that given $v _ 1, \ldots, v _ k$ lineraly independent vectors, then there exists $w _ 1, \ldots, w _ k$ such that:
- $w _ i$ are mutually orthogonal
- $\text{span}(w _ 1, \ldots, w _ i) = \text{span}(v _ 1, \ldots, v _ i)$
for each $i \le k$.
Todo.