Q - Analysis TT23 Collection, Q7
Flashcards
How would you prove that if $f’(x) \ge 0$ for all $x$, then if $a < b$, $f(a) \le f(b)$?
Use the MVT
\[\frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a} = f'(\xi)\]for some $\xi$, everything is positive.